Just what does an intuitive, fortune teller, remote viewer or a mother with a premonition or intuition, exactly see – what will probably be or what must be? Restated, are we seeing god’s will or man with free will? It took me almost two years to arrive at my personal answer for it. I chose free will.
Therefore, as an intuitive, I see what is most probably going to occur as one has until the very last second to choose their actions / future. This is the difference. A man gets up after his birthday party, goes into the trashed kitchen and cooks breakfast. For the beverage he grabs a stale half beer already out.
A psychic would predict Birthday Boy’s first year meal with hot beer. End of story if the future has already occurred, as in god’s will be done. So in this case, how can god judge Birthday Boy a slob for not having coffee instead? Birthday Boy had no choice in the matter, right?
But if the psychic predicts a stale beer based on Birthday Boy’s past life, probability and a little happenstance, then that event is only the most probable outcome up until the last second of free will. Therefore, god can think “Slob” because it was the Slob’s decision.
So when we discuss religion, which is it? Right now I think most of humanity thinks as we were taught this song as younguns, “How do I know, because the bible tells me so.” But I feel like the bible tells us it goes both ways, depending on which section you read, so how is that helpful?
When the Most Reverend Jim Baker was raping his secretary, was it fate, as in god’s plan for him, or fate, as in his choice or series of choices? The first is he is an innocent bit-actor in a scripted play. The latter is he is an evil doer. Right?
Therefore, my choice is for free will. Thus Nostradamus and the bible visionary that dictated what he saw in visions, to an educated scribe may have predicted what was most most probable, right?
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I am currently reading Controlled Remote Viewing authored by one of the viewers that predicted that in October we would see a city being bombed with no exits.
The process they use describes problems in their control system. The Viewer gets a quick glimpse at something. From the time the signal is detected to the time his pen touches paper to describe it, the signal my be distorted. That distortion may be because he has to use the bathroom, or because of his personal life experiences overlaying the received signal. As an example he may see a nuclear reactor tower in his signal. But he personally has never seen a picture of a nuclear power plant and might write that he sees a factory chimney. This is distortion.
Now let’s look at the bible visionary. In his day and time, suppose we assume they are barbaric and have a vocabulary of only 20,000 words, shall we. Before you squeal about this allow me to suggest we look at colors. Go into the paint store and look at all the possible color charts one can begin with before you alter even those colors. All have names.
But in the time of the bible receiver, there were limited means of paint mixing and surly they didn’t have the color “Oprah Blue” for a roof tarp. Nor did they have thumb tacks, computers, microchip or valves to choose from. So where they may have had 10,000 words to choose from, modern bible readers have a million words to use today.
Then lets talk about translating from one language to another and then to a third language which actually happened. I am reminded of the man that wrote software that translated from one language to another. On a sales call the customer suggested a test phrase of “the spirit indeed is willing, but the flesh is weak.” The computer restated it if French. When the customer asked to bring it back to English it said “The meat is rotten but the wine is fine.”
Some things can get lost in translation, that’s my point. Is this possible in a modern bible? Am I an evil doer for dare asking this question? Would god hold us responsible if in our hearts and soul know something is evil and yet we do it because “we were only following orders?”
